Merry Thanksgiving

Within the Proverbs, the Holy Spirit establishes an antithesis between a merry heart and a sorrowful heart. Proverbs 15:13 – “A merry heart maketh a cheerful countenance: but by sorrow of the heart the spirit is broken.” A chapter earlier (14:13), we find that “even in laughter the heart is sorrowful; and the end of that mirth is heaviness.” Still another Proverb (16:23) explains that “the heart of the wise teacheth his mouth, and addeth learning to his lips.” The mouth does not teach the heart; the heart teaches the mouth. So a cheerful countenance from a merry heart is telling the truth, but laughter from a sorrowful heart is lying. But that is not the only entailment of such laughter.

It is also momentary (short-lived). Antithetically, “he that is of a merry heart hath a continual feast” – Proverbs 15:15. Thus, we conclude that the merry-hearted men and women of God are the only ones who can truly celebrate the Thanksgiving holiday.

Just as the triumphal exultation of a heart surgeon much challenged by a recent operation is far better appreciated by his colleagues than by the actors who only play doctors on TV, so too may holy people relate with the Pilgrims far better than heathen people. For we, like the Pilgrims, acknowledge the Great Heart Surgeon Who “brings forth food out of the earth.” It is His “bread which strengthens man’s heart” and His “wine that makes glad the heart of man.” (Psalm 104:14b-15)

The heathen’s laughter comes on Turkey Thursday and is gone by Monday, but he whose face God’s oil has made to shine keeps on feasting. So “eat, drink, and be merry; for this will remain with [you] in [your] labor all the days of [your] life which God gives [you] under the sun. Go thy way, eat thy bread with joy, and drink thy wine with a merry heart; for God now accepteth thy works. Enter into His gates with thanksgiving, and into His courts with praise: be thankful unto Him, and bless His name.” (Eccl. 8:15 NKJV; Eccl. 9:7; & Psalm 100:4)

Food & Wine for Thought

“Did Jesus turn the water into alcoholic wine?” One of the arguments, which I’ve heard throughout my life, against the drinking of wine and other alcoholic beverages is that the word which we read in our Bibles translated into English as “wine” can actually mean grape juice. I.e., “wine” does not necessarily refer to something fermented, but it can also refer to the juice which has just been created. While I have yet to study the claim of this argument or to study this word in the original language (“oίνoς”, pronounced oy’-nos, as the Greek would have it), I still have some fundamental questions even about this argument.

First of all, I assume that it can be safely said that the translators of the Holy Scriptures generally fell into one of the four following categories:
...Christian, Wine-Drinker...........Non-Christian, Wine-Drinker
...Christian, Non-Wine-Drinker.....Non-Christian, Non-Wine-Drinker

If they fell into either of the two categories on the right-side of the above array, that is, if the translators of our English Bible were not Christians, then does this not raise some very serious issues concerning our convictions about the infallibility and authority of the Scriptures? So let’s assume for now, for the sake of argument (without yet researching the translation parameters), that they were Christian.

They then were either drinkers of alcoholic wine or abstainers from such. If they were abstainers from wine, and if they were thus because of religious conviction, and if the word in the original language could have been translated as something other than wine (this is a big “if,” since it would also be helpful in this argument to know if it was common in the language and era of the translators to refer to “grape juice” as “wine”), then why did they still translate it as wine? I.e., if the context of the Scriptural passage was likely referring to non-fermented grape juice, then why didn’t the translators clarify that (unless the King James language was not referring to any fruit beverage as anything other than wine), especially if they themselves were convinced of the inappropriateness of drinking wine?

Otherwise, if they were Christians who enjoyed their liberties in Christ including the enjoyment of their wine, then it is understandable why they had no problem translating the many references to wine as they did.

* * * * * *

– Why do the Scriptures appear to be speaking of wine?
– Why was Christ accused of being a “winebibber” (Matthew 11:19, Luke 7:34)? Did the “men of [Christ’s] generation” really have a problem with His drinking grape juice?
– Why have Christians in the past drunk wine, why do Christians today enjoy wine without becoming controlled by it, … especially if it is easily or feasibly arguable that Scripture should likely be referring to grape juice?

What has changed throughout church history? and why? How have these changes come about? Are they justified? – We need to know the Scriptures, and we need to know our history.

More Thoughts on Wine

Obviously, not all of the Scriptures’ uses of the word wine are necessarily in reference to grape juice. One must look at the context. Even then, it becomes difficult, if not impossible, to prove that the Scriptures prohibit the use of alcoholic wine. Consider the following:

Ephesians 5:18 states, “Be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess.” Does this mean, “Be not drunk with” grape juice?

How were the Israelites to preserve the grape juice from fermentation?

Deuteronomy 14:25-26 is very interesting, where is commanded, “Then shalt thou … go unto the place which the LORD thy God shall choose: 26And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lusteth after, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household.”

John 2:9-10 relates, “When the ruler of the feast had tasted the water that was made wine, and knew not whence it was: (but the servants which drew the water knew;) the governor of the feast called the bridegroom, and saith unto him, ‘Every man at the beginning doth set forth good wine; and when men have well drunk, then that which is worse: but thou hast kept the good wine until now.’” Was he speaking of the various grades of grape juice that were customarily served at wedding feasts?

In Matthew 11 and Luke 7, Christ says that John the Baptist “came neither eating nor drinking,” but then He “the Son of man came eating and drinking” (Matthew 11:18-19). Christ’s statement is likely in reference to John’s obedience to the angel’s command spoken to John’s father Zacharias in Luke 1:15, “For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb.” What was John prohibited from drinking? Wine and strong drink. So when Christ says that “John came neither eating nor drinking” but that He “the Son of man came eating and drinking,” what was he then drinking?

Why did Peter, at Pentecost, not rather declare, “These are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is not the custom of the Jews to drink alcoholic wine”? (Acts 2:15)

When various warnings are given throughout the Scriptures from the Holy Spirit against the drunkenness and the abuse of strong drink, is it because He saw that the Israelites might easily become addicted to grape juice?